AIBE XIX ANSWER KEY SET A
1. In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?
Answer: (B) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
Answer: (D) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner
3. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
Answer: (C) 77
4. Which of the following statement is correct about the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
Answer: (B) (i), (iii), (iv)
This includes:
- (i) It introduces Article 239AA.
- (iii) It also adds Article 334A.
- (iv) The above-stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of 15 years.
8. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
Answer: (B) 105
9. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
Answer: (C) 101
10. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Answer: (A) Either House of Parliament
11. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, considers force to be "Criminal Force":
Answer: (D) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear, or annoyance
12. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a banknote under Section 182(1)?
Answer: (C) Five hundred rupees
13. According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defense of property extends to which of the following offenses?
Answer: (D) (1) and (2) and (3)
- (1) Robbery
- (2) House-breaking after sunset
- (3) Theft, mischief, or house trespass
14. Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?
Answer: (B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
16. Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
Answer: (B) House trespass with intent to commit theft
17. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is defined in which section of the BNS?
Answer: (C) 65
18. A new offense of ‘Snatching’ has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines ‘Snatching’ as an offense?
Answer: (C) 308
19. Consider the following statements regarding arrests in non-cognizable offenses:
Correct Answer: (A) (1), (3)
- Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offense.
- Raju can be arrested only if the police want to prevent him from committing a cognizable offense.
20. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offenses irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as?
Answer: (A) Zero FIR
21. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scene to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ___ years.
Answer: (B) 4
22. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in the absence of proclaimed offenders?
Answer: (C) 376
23. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
Answer: (C) 430
24. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Answer: (D) 101
25. Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
Answer: (A) 98
26. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information and assistance to the general public?
Answer: (B) 298
27. Which section of BNSS provides for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
Answer: (C) 346
28. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the speedy conclusion of cases?
Answer: (D) 356
29. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B on the grounds of bias. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit should be transferred?
Answer: (A) The District Court where the suit is currently pending
30. Anita files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money. Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is alleged to be a necessary party. The court decides that Seema should indeed be added. Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
Answer: (C) Order 1, Rule 10 – Substitution of Parties
31. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
Answer: (A) Section 96
32. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
Answer: (C) 120 days
33. Which section of the CPC provides the exemption to the President of India and the Governor from personal appearance in court?
Answer: (C) Section 133
34. What is the term for a higher court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
Answer: (D) Transfer of suits
35. Under which order of the CPC is the procedure for summary suits provided?
Answer: (D) Order XXXVII
Here are the answers to questions 36 to 50:
36. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?
Answer: (A) Section 11
37. ___ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
Answer: (D) Section 88
38. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
Answer: (C) Section 35A
39. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Answer: (A) Inducement
40. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in ___.
Answer: (B) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
41. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, police recover a stolen laptop and fingerprints at a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is true regarding the principle of evidence?
Answer: (A) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are automatically considered conclusive proof of Rajesh’s guilt.
42. Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography, or photography, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as?
Answer: (C) Circumstantial evidence
43. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the President and the President of India to be produced before it?
Answer: (B) 165
44. According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases:
Answer: (A) Always relevant to prove conduct
45. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
Answer: (B) The officer must be presumed to have certified the document in their official character.
46. Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when leading questions are permissible in court proceedings?
Answer: (C) Leading questions are permissible during cross-examination.
47. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
Answer: (C) It always involves negotiation between the parties.
48. P Ltd. and XYZ Ltd. regarding arbitration could not agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. As per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following is correct?
Answer: (D) The court must appoint an arbitrator if the parties fail to agree on one.
49. Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
Answer: (A) It is generally faster than litigation.
(Since this is incorrect in real scenarios where ADR is indeed faster.)
50. Kiran and Meera are involved in arbitration where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera challenges the enforcement of the award. According to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which section governs the enforcement of the arbitral award?
Answer: (A) Section 34